Papal Infallibility...again

Occasionally, I read Catholic Exchange.  I used to check it daily, but not so much anylonger.  I happened to be directed to it, and noticed this piece about when the Pope speaks infallibly, written by a licensed canonist.

She says: "It is quite evident that this was intended to be an infallible pronouncement, as it is formulated exactly as Vatican I had stipulated. (Note that Pope Pius did not specify whether Mary had actually died or not, before she was assumed into heaven. Catholics are thus free to hypothesize about both possibilities!) There is absolutely no doubt that this is an instance of the Pope speaking ex cathedra."

Comments were closed, so here goes my rant.  While she is a licensed canonist, I seriously don't know where she got this idea that there was a specific formula to Pastor aeturnus or even Lumen gentium.  This is a very limited very of the infallibility of the pope.  Even without much theological or canonical training, I was able to point out the four criteria for infallibility in Humanae vitae, AND in John Paul II's Evangelium vitae. 

Here is what Lumen gentium says in regards to papal infallibility:

"And this is the infallibility which the Roman Pontiff, the head of the college of bishops, enjoys in virtue of his office, when, as the supreme shepherd and teacher of all the faithful, who confirms his brethren in their faith,(166) by a definitive act he proclaims a doctrine of faith or morals.(42*) And therefore his definitions, of themselves, and not from the consent of the Church, are justly styled irreformable, since they are pronounced with the assistance of the Holy Spirit, promised to him in blessed Peter, and therefore they need no approval of others, nor do they allow an appeal to any other judgment." Lumen gentium, 25

Here is what the First Ecumenical Council of the Vatican defined:

"we teach and define as a divinely revealed dogma that

• when the Roman pontiff speaks EX CATHEDRA,
  • that is, when,
    1. in the exercise of his office as shepherd and teacher of all Christians,
    2. in virtue of his supreme apostolic authority,
    3. he defines a doctrine concerning faith or morals to be held by the whole church,
• he possesses,
  • by the divine assistance promised to him in blessed Peter,
• that infallibility which the divine Redeemer willed his church to enjoy in defining doctrine concerning faith or morals.
• Therefore, such definitions of the Roman pontiff are of themselves, and not by the consent of the church, irreformable. "

What are the conditions, using both definitions?  First, the Holy Father must be addressing all Christians as their shepherd and teacher.  Second, he must be using his supreme apostolic authority.  Third, he defines a doctrine concerning faith or morals.  In neither of these do we see a formula that is codified.  This means that neither the Fathers of the First Ecumenical Council of the Vatican, nor the Fathers of the Second Ecumenical Council of the Vatican wished papal infallibility to be formulaic.  Thus, it is open for the Holy Father to address an encyclical to all Christians (as the Paul VI did in Humanae vitae and John Paul II did in Evangelium vitae), mention his authority as the Successor of Peter (which is what John Paul II clearly does in Evangelium vitae, 62), and define a doctrine concerning faith or morals to be held by the faithful.

It is as if the author didn't even read Evangelium vitae or Lumen gentium, or even the necessary docments from Vatican I.